In 1977 David Horrobin proposed his theory that schizophrenia was a result of prostoglandin deficiency based on a few observations;
(1) all effective antischizophrenic drugs stimulate prolactin secretion and prolactin is a potent stimulator of prostaglandin synthesis; (2) schizophrenics are resistant to pain and inflammation and are free of rheumatoid arthritis and there is increasing evidence that prostaglandins play important roles in pain, inflammation, and rheumatoid arthritis; (3) high doses of drugs recently shown to be prostaglandin antagonists cause schizophrenia-like syndromes
This and other evidence supporting this theory is interesting. I doubt prostaglandin deficiency is the only factor in schizophrenia, but it may be a factor. I'm unsure at this point.
I'd be interested to hear other people's opinions and evaluations of this theory.
asked byMscott (12682)
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on June 19, 2012
at 06:07 AM
I wonder if mental illness is not diet related, or a neurotransmitter deficiancy myself.
Studies have suggested (sorry didnt read these studies myself), bipolars are high in glutamate, and low in acetylcholine, and schizophrenics are high in acetylcholine, and low in glutamate. Both those neurotransmitter systems relate to memory and conciousness.
Glutamate lowering drugs are disassociatives, like ketamine and PCP. Choline lowering drugs are delirients like datura. Bipolars treated with choline respond as effeciently as they do with anti-psychotics (did read these studies) 30% of people are low in choline (choline is in eggs and meat). There have been several studies on bipolar and choline, and the link seems completely plausible, when you consider what choline lowering drugs do, and that people in society are generally low in choline.
There are no studies that I know of that attempt to rectify the balance in schizophrenics with glutamine supplementation, but thats something that really should be tried.
I personally have no idea about your prostaglandin deficiency theory, and sorry to use this as a chance to share the theory Ive considered, but thought u might be interested.
The other unpopular theory worth considering with mental illness is that of psychic conflict, that emotional pressures in the persons mind, or particularly world, or world veiw cause the person to experience things in metaphor, in an attempt to re-organise the mind (roughly).
This is the model that Jung proposed, and there have been a few cases of schizophrenics being successfully cured using this model (trying to understand what the delusions and hallicinations mean, being in a supportive, safe and comforting enviroment).
I think there is some merit in this concept, as there is clearly metaphorical content in mentally ill peoples ideas and experiences, much like that in dreams. Youd need to be blind not to see that these delusions and hallicinations arent random. They fall into clear symbolic patterns. And there is also a high degree of emotional disatifaction and trauma in mentally ill peoples lives.
I tend to beleive that a combination of these two factors (diet/lifetysle, and emotions) could resolve/cure mental illness - ie a tailored eating pattern, excercise, and corrections to the conditions which the person lives in, and context for their emotions.
At the very least, these are two links - dietary neurotransmitters levels and underlying emotions behind mental illness that are underexplored and considered.
Why is it that rather than assume a person has issues they need context for, we assume something is radically broken? Children 'hallucinate'. 60% of people hear voices, usually there own name. Traditional people have long talked to their anscestors. These experiences are perfectly within normal experiences, they are just under-recognised in our materialistic, scientific, and emotionally stoic society. (and the stoicism of our society probably doesnt help "mentally ill" people at all IMO)
Anyway, in my mind, the current accepted theories of mental illness, are so unfounded, so unevidenced, so counter intuitive, so poor at giving treatment, and quite inhumane either way, that I personally veiw them as pure primitive superstition, that is the result of a society in strong denial.
on June 19, 2012
at 02:42 PM
I can't answer your question directly, but you may find some great info at Dr. Emily Dean's blog:
on June 19, 2012
at 05:21 AM
That's a 1977 article, eons ago in terms of medical research. Schizophrenia research has since advanced far beyond RA and prostoglandin. The latest flavor of the month pins the blame on pathogens.
Actually, this time, the flavor of the month seems to have some staying power: The latest thinking is that schizophrenia may be linked to MS and bipolar disorder, and that the culprit is HERV-W, a retrovirus which entered our DNA 60 million years ago, when human being were lemur-like mammals. Infections trigger HERV-W to awaken shortly before or after birth: properly activated, the new born now has a death sentence and a destiny with either schizophrenia, MS or BD.
Some of you may laugh but the retrovirus theory explains the frequence of schizophrenics being born in colder months. Well, guess what, the same thing happens in MS and BD. Whether you contract schizophrenia, MS or bipolar disorder may depend on the state of your immune system, which is weakend in colder months. Again, no brainer since those with autoimmune problems know that the gut and the brain seem to be tightly linked when it comes to moods, even psychosis.
Read more about it here. It's a detective story. And someone who cracks the schizophrenia puzzle will be a health detective, not someone at the treatment end clueless and unaware of the role of infections in kickstarting just about every disease there is. PHD seems to be right -- infections cause not only chronic and degenerative diseases but other, even mental, illnesses as well.
on June 18, 2012
at 07:14 PM
I have to disagree with this theory.
Please watch. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nEnklxGAmak
Schizophrenia is 100% heritable and it has a very weird genetic pattern. It is a recessive gene that follows an atypical pattern of heredity.
EDITED: by 100% heritable I mean that the gene/genes responsible are inherited by 100% of all offspring. It does not mean that the child develops schizophrenia, but all children carry the genes and pass them on. Those genes will manifest themselves in future generations following a particular pattern. No quotes - personal observations.
- I believe in dopamine-receptor theory. Why? I know too many schizophrenics, unfortunately, and observed them in a very close environment. It is not true that schizophrenics are resistant to pain. Some of them - yes, some of them - definitely no.
I disagree with the author. Definitely 100% heritable.
on June 18, 2012
at 08:18 PM
This is really fascinating. My mother is a diagnosed schizophrenic. She is essentially a vegan (fruits and vegetables) + small amounts of Greek yogurt and salmon. She is a long distance runner and, despite her anorexia, a phenomenal tennis player as well. She does not have arthritis or and I am convinced she is going to outlive us all. She obviously does not consume much AA, but I have no clue about whether exogenous AA affects endogenous levels. Interesting theory, but it seems a little too simplistic.